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Top 100 WBHRB Staff Nurse MCQs with Answers for Upcoming Nursing Recruitment

7 September 2026 min read
Top 100 WBHRB Staff Nurse MCQs with Answers for Upcoming Nursing Recruitment

Candidates preparing for the next WBHRB Staff Nurse Grade-II recruitment should focus heavily on nursing-based objective questions, clinical situations and priority-based decision making.

In the latest major recruitment cycle, the West Bengal Health Recruitment Board used a Computer Based Test with:

  • 50 MCQs
  • 100 raw marks
  • 60 minutes
  • +2 marks for each correct answer
  • −0.5 mark for each wrong answer
  • CBT marks scaled to 85 marks
  • Interview carrying 15 marks

The previous GNM Staff Nurse CBT was held on 31 December 2025 and 1 January 2026, followed by scorecards, interviews and the final panel in 2026.

As of the latest official WBHRB notice-board check, a fresh general Staff Nurse application for the next cycle is not yet listed, so the questions below should be used as preparation material for the upcoming/next recruitment, not as questions for an already announced new CBT.

The 100 MCQs below are original practice questions, designed around the important professional nursing areas relevant to GNM and B.Sc. Nursing candidates.

WBHRB Staff Nurse MCQ Subject Distribution

Subject| Questions Medical-Surgical / Adult Health Nursing| 20 Midwifery & Gynaecological Nursing| 15 Nursing Foundation| 12 Anatomy & Physiology| 8 Community Health Nursing| 10 Child Health Nursing| 8 Mental Health Nursing| 7 Microbiology & Infection Control| 5 Pharmacology| 5 First Aid & Emergency Nursing| 4 Nutrition| 3 Nursing Administration & Research| 3 Total| 100

Medical-Surgical Nursing MCQs

  1. Which is often an early sign of hypoxia in an adult patient?

A. Cyanosis B. Restlessness C. Bradycardia D. Hypotension

Answer: B. Restlessness

Explanation: Restlessness, anxiety and confusion can appear early when brain oxygenation begins to decrease.

  1. Left-sided heart failure most commonly causes:

A. Peripheral oedema only B. Ascites C. Pulmonary congestion D. Splenomegaly

Answer: C. Pulmonary congestion

Explanation: Failure of the left ventricle causes blood to back up into the pulmonary circulation.

  1. Which ECG change is classically associated with hyperkalaemia?

A. Peaked T waves B. U waves C. ST elevation only D. Prolonged QT interval

Answer: A. Peaked T waves

  1. Which breathing pattern is commonly associated with diabetic ketoacidosis?

A. Cheyne-Stokes breathing B. Kussmaul breathing C. Biot breathing D. Apneustic breathing

Answer: B. Kussmaul breathing

Explanation: Deep, rapid breathing helps compensate for metabolic acidosis.

  1. Which of the following is a rapid-acting insulin?

A. Glargine B. Lispro C. NPH D. Detemir

Answer: B. Lispro

  1. Which laboratory marker is most specific for myocardial injury?

A. Serum sodium B. Troponin C. Bilirubin D. Amylase

Answer: B. Troponin

  1. A patient with active pulmonary tuberculosis requires which transmission-based precaution?

A. Contact precaution B. Droplet precaution only C. Airborne precaution D. Reverse isolation

Answer: C. Airborne precaution

  1. Which dietary restriction is commonly important in a patient with cirrhosis and significant ascites?

A. Sodium restriction B. Vitamin C restriction C. Calcium restriction D. Complete carbohydrate restriction

Answer: A. Sodium restriction

  1. Black, tarry stool is called:

A. Haematemesis B. Haemoptysis C. Melena D. Haematuria

Answer: C. Melena

Explanation: Melena commonly indicates digested blood from an upper gastrointestinal source.

  1. Pain from acute pancreatitis characteristically may radiate to the:

A. Right leg B. Back C. Wrist D. Jaw only

Answer: B. Back

  1. A patient with a left cerebral hemisphere stroke is most likely to develop:

A. Left hemiplegia B. Right hemiplegia C. Bilateral blindness only D. Paraplegia

Answer: B. Right hemiplegia

  1. Immediately after a generalised seizure ends, the nurse should generally position the patient:

A. Flat on the back B. On the side C. Prone with head down D. Standing

Answer: B. On the side

Explanation: A lateral position helps maintain the airway and allows secretions to drain.

  1. An appropriate position for many patients with increased intracranial pressure is:

A. Head of bed elevated about 30° B. Trendelenburg position C. Flat with legs elevated D. Knee-chest position

Answer: A. Head of bed elevated about 30°

  1. A patient has extensive facial burns and singed nasal hair. What is the nurse's highest priority?

A. Measuring body weight B. Maintaining the airway C. Giving oral food D. Assessing bowel sounds

Answer: B. Maintaining the airway

  1. Which is commonly an early compensatory sign of hypovolaemic shock?

A. Tachycardia B. Severe bradycardia C. Hypertension D. Polyuria

Answer: A. Tachycardia

  1. A patient has an arteriovenous fistula for haemodialysis. Which action should be avoided on that arm?

A. Checking for thrill B. Listening for bruit C. Measuring blood pressure D. Observing the site

Answer: C. Measuring blood pressure

  1. A major characteristic of nephrotic syndrome is:

A. Massive proteinuria B. Severe polycythaemia C. Hypercalcaemia only D. Increased haemoglobin

Answer: A. Massive proteinuria

  1. Which finding is characteristic of thyroid storm?

A. Hypothermia B. Severe bradycardia C. Hyperthermia and tachycardia D. Reduced metabolic rate

Answer: C. Hyperthermia and tachycardia

  1. Which electrolyte disturbance may occur in Addison's disease?

A. Hyperkalaemia B. Severe hypernatraemia C. Hypercalcaemia only D. Hypermagnesaemia only

Answer: A. Hyperkalaemia

  1. Which physical feature is commonly associated with Cushing syndrome?

A. Moon face B. Severe wasting only C. Sunken eyes D. Clubbing

Answer: A. Moon face

Midwifery & Gynaecological Nursing MCQs

  1. The normal baseline fetal heart rate is generally:

A. 60–80 beats/min B. 80–100 beats/min C. 110–160 beats/min D. 180–220 beats/min

Answer: C. 110–160 beats/min

  1. Quickening is commonly first perceived by a primigravida at approximately:

A. 4–6 weeks B. 8–10 weeks C. 18–20 weeks D. 30–32 weeks

Answer: C. 18–20 weeks

  1. The first stage of labour ends when:

A. Contractions begin B. Cervix becomes fully dilated C. Baby is delivered D. Placenta is delivered

Answer: B. Cervix becomes fully dilated

  1. Placenta previa classically presents with:

A. Painful vaginal bleeding B. Painless vaginal bleeding C. Severe fever only D. Convulsions without bleeding

Answer: B. Painless vaginal bleeding

  1. Placental abruption is commonly associated with:

A. Painless bleeding and soft uterus B. Painful bleeding and uterine tenderness C. No abdominal pain D. Polyuria

Answer: B. Painful bleeding and uterine tenderness

  1. The most common cause of primary postpartum haemorrhage is:

A. Uterine atony B. Renal failure C. Pneumonia D. Hyperthyroidism

Answer: A. Uterine atony

  1. Which drug is commonly used to prevent/control seizures in severe pre-eclampsia and eclampsia?

A. Magnesium sulfate B. Ferrous sulfate C. Metformin D. Digoxin

Answer: A. Magnesium sulfate

  1. Which uterotonic is commonly first-line for prevention and treatment of uterine-atony-related postpartum haemorrhage?

A. Oxytocin B. Insulin C. Heparin D. Diazepam

Answer: A. Oxytocin

  1. A partograph is primarily used to:

A. Diagnose anaemia B. Monitor progress of labour C. Measure neonatal jaundice D. Diagnose pregnancy

Answer: B. Monitor progress of labour

  1. APGAR scoring is routinely assessed soon after birth, particularly at:

A. 1 and 5 minutes B. 10 and 20 hours C. 24 and 48 hours D. 7 and 14 days

Answer: A. 1 and 5 minutes

  1. Lochia rubra is normally seen primarily during the:

A. Early postpartum days B. Entire pregnancy C. First trimester only D. Menopause

Answer: A. Early postpartum days

  1. Soon after a normal delivery, the uterine fundus is generally palpated around the level of the:

A. Xiphisternum B. Umbilicus C. Pubic symphysis only D. Costal margin

Answer: B. Umbilicus

  1. Severe headache with visual disturbance in a pregnant woman should raise suspicion of:

A. Pre-eclampsia B. Normal pregnancy only C. Common cold D. Appendicitis only

Answer: A. Pre-eclampsia

  1. In umbilical cord prolapse, which maternal position can help reduce cord compression while urgent definitive care is arranged?

A. Knee-chest position B. Supine flat position C. High Fowler position D. Sitting upright

Answer: A. Knee-chest position

  1. In an uncomplicated birth, breastfeeding should ideally be initiated:

A. Within the first hour after birth B. After 24 hours only C. After three days D. After one week

Answer: A. Within the first hour after birth

Nursing Foundation MCQs

  1. What is the first step of the nursing process?

A. Planning B. Assessment C. Evaluation D. Implementation

Answer: B. Assessment

  1. Before administering medication, the nurse should confirm the patient's identity using:

A. Room number only B. Bed number only C. Appropriate patient identifiers D. Another patient's statement

Answer: C. Appropriate patient identifiers

  1. Which IM injection site is generally considered a safe site in adults because it avoids major nerves and vessels?

A. Ventrogluteal B. Umbilical C. Popliteal D. Carpal

Answer: A. Ventrogluteal

  1. In a sterile field, the outer border is generally considered:

A. Sterile B. Contaminated C. Surgically clean D. Suitable for sterile instruments

Answer: B. Contaminated

  1. The single most important routine measure for reducing transmission of healthcare-associated infection is:

A. Hand hygiene B. Wearing shoe covers everywhere C. Keeping windows closed D. Giving antibiotics to every patient

Answer: A. Hand hygiene

  1. Which position often helps a conscious patient experiencing breathing difficulty?

A. Fowler's position B. Trendelenburg position C. Prone with head down D. Lithotomy position

Answer: A. Fowler's position

  1. The usual position for administering a cleansing enema is:

A. Left Sims' position B. Standing C. Lithotomy only D. Knee extension position

Answer: A. Left Sims' position

  1. The most reliable method for confirming initial placement of a newly inserted nasogastric tube is:

A. Listening for injected air only B. X-ray confirmation C. Asking the patient D. Looking at tube colour

Answer: B. X-ray confirmation

  1. A commonly used minimum urine-output threshold indicating adequate renal perfusion in adults is approximately:

A. 0.1 mL/kg/hour B. 0.5 mL/kg/hour C. 5 mL/kg/hour D. 10 mL/kg/hour

Answer: B. 0.5 mL/kg/hour

  1. A urinary drainage bag should normally be kept:

A. Above bladder level B. At the same height as the shoulder C. Below bladder level D. On the patient's abdomen

Answer: C. Below bladder level

  1. Which instruction is essential when oxygen is being administered?

A. Smoking is permitted nearby B. Keep oxygen near an open flame C. Avoid smoking and ignition sources D. Apply petroleum jelly inside the equipment

Answer: C. Avoid smoking and ignition sources

  1. When communicating with a patient who has expressive aphasia, an appropriate approach is to:

A. Shout loudly B. Ask several complex questions at once C. Use simple questions and allow adequate response time D. Avoid communication completely

Answer: C. Use simple questions and allow adequate response time

Anatomy & Physiology MCQs

  1. The structural and functional unit of the kidney is the:

A. Neuron B. Nephron C. Alveolus D. Osteon

Answer: B. Nephron

  1. The natural pacemaker of the heart is the:

A. AV node B. SA node C. Bundle of His D. Purkinje fibres

Answer: B. SA node

  1. Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell?

A. Optic B. Olfactory C. Trigeminal D. Vagus

Answer: B. Olfactory

Practice Set 1 Complete

Questions 1–50 can be attempted as one WBHRB-style mock.

Suggested timing: 60 minutes

Scoring:

  • Correct = +2
  • Wrong = −0.5
  • Unattempted = 0

Now continue with Set 2.

  1. Insulin is secreted primarily by which cells of the pancreas?

A. Alpha cells B. Beta cells C. Delta cells only D. Acinar cells

Answer: B. Beta cells

  1. Gas exchange in the lungs occurs primarily in the:

A. Trachea B. Bronchi C. Alveoli D. Pleura

Answer: C. Alveoli

  1. The largest organ of the human body is the:

A. Liver B. Skin C. Lung D. Kidney

Answer: B. Skin

  1. Which blood component plays a major role in clot formation?

A. Platelets B. Lymph only C. Plasma glucose D. Albumin only

Answer: A. Platelets

  1. The normal resting pulse rate for most healthy adults is approximately:

A. 10–20/min B. 30–40/min C. 60–100/min D. 140–180/min

Answer: C. 60–100/min

Community Health Nursing MCQs

  1. Incidence refers to:

A. All old and new cases at a point/period B. New cases developing in a population during a specified period C. Number of hospital beds D. Total population only

Answer: B. New cases developing in a population during a specified period

  1. Prevalence measures:

A. Only newly diagnosed cases B. Existing cases in a population at a specified time/period C. Only deaths D. Birth rate only

Answer: B. Existing cases in a population at a specified time/period

  1. Immunisation is an example of:

A. Primary prevention B. Secondary prevention C. Tertiary prevention D. Rehabilitation

Answer: A. Primary prevention

  1. Screening for early detection of disease is primarily an example of:

A. Primary prevention B. Secondary prevention C. Tertiary prevention D. Palliative care

Answer: B. Secondary prevention

  1. Rehabilitation after permanent disability is an example of:

A. Primary prevention B. Secondary prevention C. Tertiary prevention D. Primordial prevention only

Answer: C. Tertiary prevention

  1. Most routine vaccines in the cold chain are generally stored at:

A. 20–30°C B. 2–8°C C. 40–50°C D. −100°C

Answer: B. 2–8°C

  1. ORS is primarily used to:

A. Treat hypertension B. Prevent and treat dehydration due to diarrhoea C. Cure tuberculosis D. Treat fractures

Answer: B. Prevent and treat dehydration due to diarrhoea

  1. ASHA primarily functions as a community-level health activist/link worker at the:

A. Village/community level B. State secretariat only C. Medical college only D. Parliament level

Answer: A. Village/community level

  1. NTEP is the national programme associated with control and elimination efforts for:

A. Tuberculosis B. Diabetes only C. Cataract only D. Anaemia only

Answer: A. Tuberculosis

  1. Infant Mortality Rate refers to deaths of children under one year of age per:

A. 100 total population B. 1,000 live births C. 10 live births D. 100 pregnancies

Answer: B. 1,000 live births

Child Health Nursing MCQs

  1. The maximum possible APGAR score is:

A. 5 B. 8 C. 10 D. 20

Answer: C. 10

  1. Exclusive breastfeeding is generally recommended for approximately the first:

A. 1 month B. 3 months C. 6 months D. 12 months with no complementary food

Answer: C. 6 months

  1. Vitamin K is routinely given to newborns primarily to help prevent:

A. Haemorrhagic bleeding due to vitamin K deficiency B. Neonatal diabetes C. Congenital heart disease D. Cleft palate

Answer: A. Haemorrhagic bleeding due to vitamin K deficiency

  1. Koplik spots are classically associated with:

A. Measles B. Mumps C. Tetanus D. Pertussis

Answer: A. Measles

  1. A characteristic symptom of croup is:

A. Barking cough B. Severe haematuria C. Bloody diarrhoea only D. Joint deformity

Answer: A. Barking cough

  1. Which is a common clinical sign of dehydration in a child?

A. Sunken eyes B. Generalised oedema in every case C. Increased tears D. Excessive urine output

Answer: A. Sunken eyes

  1. The preferred IM injection site in an infant is commonly the:

A. Deltoid only B. Vastus lateralis C. Dorsogluteal D. Forearm

Answer: B. Vastus lateralis

  1. A normal respiratory rate for a newborn is approximately:

A. 5–10/min B. 10–15/min C. 30–60/min D. 80–100/min

Answer: C. 30–60/min

Mental Health Nursing MCQs

  1. Which is the best example of therapeutic communication?

A. “Why did you do that?” B. “Tell me more about how you are feeling.” C. “You should not feel like that.” D. “Everything will definitely be fine.”

Answer: B. “Tell me more about how you are feeling.”

  1. A hallucination is:

A. A false fixed belief B. A sensory perception without an external stimulus C. Loss of long-term memory only D. Repetition of another person's words only

Answer: B. A sensory perception without an external stimulus

  1. A patient experiencing mania commonly demonstrates:

A. Increased need for sleep B. Decreased need for sleep C. Severe psychomotor retardation only D. Mutism in every case

Answer: B. Decreased need for sleep

  1. Obsessions in obsessive-compulsive disorder are:

A. Recurrent intrusive thoughts, urges or images B. Voluntary movements C. Hallucinations only D. Memory loss

Answer: A. Recurrent intrusive thoughts, urges or images

  1. ECT may be particularly useful in a patient with:

A. Severe depression requiring rapid treatment B. Simple common cold C. Uncomplicated fracture D. Mild dehydration

Answer: A. Severe depression requiring rapid treatment

  1. A patient says, “I am going to kill myself tonight.” What is the nurse's priority?

A. Leave the patient alone B. Ensure immediate safety and suicide precautions C. Tell the patient to stop talking about it D. Wait until the next day

Answer: B. Ensure immediate safety and suicide precautions

  1. A patient taking lithium should generally be taught to:

A. Become severely dehydrated B. Maintain adequate fluids and a consistent dietary sodium intake C. Completely avoid all dietary salt regardless of medical advice D. Stop the medicine whenever mood improves

Answer: B. Maintain adequate fluids and a consistent dietary sodium intake

Microbiology & Infection Control MCQs

  1. An autoclave sterilises equipment using:

A. Dry cold air B. Moist heat under pressure C. Ultraviolet light only D. Soap solution only

Answer: B. Moist heat under pressure

  1. Gram-positive bacteria appear which colour after Gram staining?

A. Purple/violet B. Bright yellow only C. Black D. Colourless

Answer: A. Purple/violet

  1. The acid-fast staining technique is classically important for identifying:

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Plasmodium only C. Candida only D. Influenza virus

Answer: A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

  1. Standard precautions should be applied:

A. Only to patients known to have HIV B. Only in ICU C. To all patients according to anticipated exposure D. Only to surgical patients

Answer: C. To all patients according to anticipated exposure

  1. When caring for a patient with suspected Clostridioides difficile infection, handwashing with soap and water is particularly important because:

A. Spores are difficult to remove with alcohol hand rub alone B. Hand hygiene is unnecessary C. Gloves completely replace hand hygiene D. The organism cannot contaminate hands

Answer: A. Spores are difficult to remove with alcohol hand rub alone

Pharmacology MCQs

  1. The antidote for heparin is:

A. Vitamin K B. Protamine sulfate C. Naloxone D. Atropine

Answer: B. Protamine sulfate

  1. The agent used to reverse the anticoagulant effect of warfarin is:

A. Vitamin K B. Calcium gluconate C. Protamine only D. Magnesium sulfate

Answer: A. Vitamin K

  1. The emergency antidote for opioid overdose is:

A. Naloxone B. Atropine C. Digoxin D. Insulin

Answer: A. Naloxone

  1. Before administering digoxin, the nurse should particularly assess the:

A. Apical pulse B. Hair colour C. Height only D. Visual acuity only

Answer: A. Apical pulse

  1. Furosemide therapy can cause:

A. Hypok

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